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October 21

Taught at Oxford

What's it called when you say someone "taught at Oxford" when you mean they "taught at Oxford University", that sort of thing? DuncanHill (talk) 15:13, 21 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

Synecdoche, or more broadly, Metonymy. Xuxl (talk) 15:28, 21 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

@Xuxl: Thank you! DuncanHill (talk) 15:31, 21 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

INAZUMA ELEVEN ARES

The animation INAZUMA ELEVEN ARES is taken in Japan and Tokyo in the first siries the story was about a young soccer player (Mark Evans)as he follows his dream of making Japan the best football place. In the second siries the story was about another enthusiastic player (Sonny Wright of Raimond Junior High team) and other two main characters (Heath Moore of Luna Prime Academy)and also (Eliot Ember of Pole Star Academy). — Preceding unsigned comment added by 41.115.61.132 (talk) 16:29, 21 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

Is there a question we can help you research the answer to? --Jayron 32 16:34, 21 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

Posted at the Teahouse before this. ←Baseball Bugs ^{What's up, Doc?} carrots→ 04:12, 22 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

Perhaps the OP is looking for Wikipedia:Requested articles? Alansplodge (talk) 10:19, 22 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

No need. They will already know (because their duplicate question was answered at The Teahouse ten minutes before they asked again here) that there is one. Bazza (talk) 10:32, 22 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

Resolved

October 22

Scottish question?

In his short story "The Howdie", John Galt says "but among other regimental clanjamphry". What does this mean and where did the word derive from? Thank you. 86.187.237.248 (talk) 19:07, 22 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

According to the OED, the word means 1. Trumpery, rubbish, things of little value. 2. Spoken ‘rubbish’; nonsensical talk, ‘rot’. 3. ‘Trumpery’ or worthless people, or those who are so viewed; rabble, mob, canaille; also ‘applied to the purse-proud vulgar’. The origin is said to be "uncertain", with the note Scott's clanjamphry suggests a contemptuous reference to a Highland Clan, e.g. Clan Chattan, Clanranald, etc.; and jampher occurs in Scots dialects, variously used as ‘scoffer, mocker, trifler, idler, shuffler’, so that clan-jamphery would give a passable sense. But it is more probable that the original idea is ‘trumpery’, and that the personal use is derived. CodeTalker (talk) 20:04, 22 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

The reference to (Sir Walter) Scott in the OED stems from his use of the term (spelled clanjamfrie) in Tales of my Landlord (1816),^[1] the earliest known recorded use. The quoted text ‘applied to the purse-proud vulgar’ is taken from Jamieson's Dictionary of the Scottish Language, which lists the term under the lemma CLAMJAMPHIRE.^[2] --Lambiam 09:17, 23 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

That would be John Galt (novelist) (1779–1839) not the Ayn Rand novel character, although the primacy of the latter seems a bit questionable. Martinevans123 (talk) 09:21, 23 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

What pity that "trumpery" is defined as being archaic. It would have been a useful term. --Cookatoo.ergo.ZooM (talk) 10:05, 23 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

Yes, one wonders if that's an "unimpeachable source". Martinevans123 (talk) 10:17, 23 October 2021 (UTC) p.s. great to see we have a whole article on Gaberlunzie.[reply]

It is still a useful term, regardless. And it's not so archaic that it doesn't occur here and there in contemporary discourse. Have at it, I say. -- Jack of Oz ^{[pleasantries]} 11:49, 24 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

October 23

O'zapft or ozapft?

I just translated the article O'zapft is! from German. However, the apostrophe looks out of place, considering "o'zapft" is supposed to be a Bavarian form of "angezapft", where "o" corresponds to "an". I don't speak German natively, and Bavarian even less, so I don't know a definite answer myself. There is also discussion on the German Wikipedia at de:Diskussion:O’zapft is! about whether there should be an apostrophe or not. Does anyone who speaks German or Bavarian better than me know? JIP | Talk 15:35, 23 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

I always assumed it stood for the omitted "ge" syllable. Apparently it isn't considered necessary and even wrong by some. (Conceivably it represents the silent "n" in "an-", however.) See also bar:Ozapft is.173.49.228.131 (talk) 15:50, 23 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

There is no accepted orthographic standard for Bavarian, so every author can make up their own rules. But I see no strong argument for the viewpoint that a letter or syllable has been "elided" or "omitted". Where standard High German has Angabe, Bavarian has Ogob, since the prefix o- corresponds to German an-. I don't know the general rules for the formation of past participles in all Bavarian dialects, but German Angebatzter becomes Obazda, and zapft seems to be the past participle of zapfen in at least some dialect: A Beisl hod normal a große Schank, in dea wos Wein küht und Bia zapft wiad, ... (from the Wikipedia article Beisl); Aus dem Brunnen is bis zum Bau vo da Hochquönwossaleitung aa Trinkwossa fian Hof zapft wuan. (from the Wikipedia article Schloss Scheenbrunn). --Lambiam 20:48, 23 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

Your examples are Austrian dialects – these are bairisch (they belong to the Bavarian dialect group) but not bayrisch (they're spoken outside of Bavaria). For the discussion here, one should look at the Munich dialect. I agree that the notion of elision here comes from taking standard German as a reference, which is not really appropriate. The conclusion of the discussion on de-WP to keep the apostrophe came from a reference that displayed some "official" usage. Unfortunately that web page doesn't seem to exist any more. The bar-WP article bar:Ozapft is (written in the Munich dialect) is without apostrophe in its title, but uses the apostrophe in the text. So: who knows... --Wrongfilter (talk) 21:52, 23 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

October 24

Spoken Arabic: Hilwe (as opposed to Hilwa).

I'm not an Arabic speaker.

1. I'm not sure if Hilwe (in Spoken Arabic) must always be written حلوة or it may also be written حلوى, or حلواء.

2. Additionally, must Hilwe always mean "sweet", or it can also mean "candy"?

3. With the meaning of "sweet", can Hilwe also refer to a boy, grammatically speaking? (I'm asking all of these questions, because a native Arabic speaker calls me "ya Hilwe" whenever he sees me even though he knows I'm not a girl. Additionally, I'm fairly sure I don't look like a girl. He also knows I'm not an Arabic speaker, so I wonder why he does that.). — Preceding unsigned comment added by 84.228.238.26 (talk) 07:35, 24 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

The pronunciation of Arabic can change according to region. I think (but am not an expert) that this pronunciation is Palestinian. Google searches suggest that the meaning can be "something sweet", like candy or a dessert. Maybe it is in appreciation of your sweet character. --Lambiam 11:22, 24 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

84.228.238.26 -- We have an article imala, which may or may not be useful to you... AnonMoos (talk) 11:36, 24 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

Actually my three questions were intended to estimate why he says "ya hilwe" (as a feminime form) rather than the expected "ya hilu" (as a masculine form), so I thought I could get the answer from any native speaker who can answer my first three questions. 84.228.238.26 (talk) 12:29, 24 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

To distinguish masculine and feminine variants of hilwe in speech can be quite tricky. الحلو can definately be pronunced hilwe. The waw in hilwe is not a long u sound by any means. --Soman (talk) 13:44, 24 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

Thanks. If you are a native (or near native) Arabic speaker, can you also answer my other questions (I have originally put forth three questions). 84.228.238.26 (talk) 14:22, 24 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

Rama dama ding dong

Apparently Rama dama is a volunteer cleaning program in Germany, and according to the German article de:Rama dama the name is a Bavarian dialectal form of "Räumen tun wir", meaning "We are cleaning". I can sort of understand how "räumen" becomes "rama", but how exactly did "tun wir" become "dama"? It doesn't sound at all similar. JIP | Talk 23:07, 24 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

Think of it as a a contraction: da‧ma. In many ~~Upper~~ High German dialects (Mddle and Upper German, of which Bavarian is one), variations of mir are used instead of wir – in this case, ma. Cheers ⌘_hugarheimur 23:24, 24 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

Mir meaning "we" also appears in Yiddish (see here). I wonder if there might ultimately be some Slavic influence. AnonMoos (talk) 23:36, 24 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

Yiddish is really a High German dialect, too. Cheers ⌘_hugarheimur 00:26, 25 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

Not necessarily. Similar forms exist in Old Norse, as well, and the Slavic impact on Old Norse seems to have been fairly minimal. From Wiktionary.

From Middle High German mir (“we”). The form originated through assimilation of wir with a preceding verb form and subsequent unetymological segmentation. This is possibly already an Old High German development, since a common Old High German ending of the 1st person plural was -em, thus bittēm wir → *bittē-mir (modern [bitten wir (“ask we, do we ask”)). The contraction as such is definitely old, though the common form of assimilation, both in written Old High German and written Middle High German, is through loss of the nasal: bittē wir. The form with mir may either be a younger development in Middle High German, or a more colloquial form that only later appeared in writing. Older age is suggested by the great dominance of mir throughout modern dialects of High German. Compare Yiddish מיר‎ (mir), Luxembourgish mir. Compare also Old Norse mit (“we two”), Norwegian Nynorsk me (“we”).

惑乱 Wakuran (talk) 01:33, 26 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

October 25

Ancient shekel Palaeo-Hebrew

Can anyone decipher the palaeo-Hebrew script on this shekel? File:Shekel_-_Coins_of_Second_Temple_period.jpg. It doesn't seem to be anything obvious like "shekel", "Israel", "Jerusalem", or "Yehud". If I try to read counterclockwise from the bottom (like File:Barkokhba-silver-tetradrachm.jpg for example) it looks like "L-G-T-L T-Sh-I-Sh-N", with some of the letters oriented oddly, and that doesn't mean anything to me. --Amble (talk) 20:55, 25 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

Are you reading with the bottom of the letters towards the middle of the coin, or towards the edge? If the former, try the latter (or vice versa). {The poster formerly known as 87.81.230.195} 90.200.65.29 (talk) 17:28, 26 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

I have tried both, but I expect the bottoms of the letters to be toward the center of the coin, as in the example of the Bar Kokhba coin that I linked above. --Amble (talk) 17:44, 26 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

The quality of the picture is not very good, unfortunately, but I found this other coin that appears to have the same inscription: לגאלת ציון ("for the redemption of Zion"). - Lindert (talk) 21:12, 26 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

Wow, thank you, that's it! --Amble (talk) 21:23, 26 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

Here's another coin that looks very similar to the one in our photo: [3]. And another File:Masada_coin.jpg similar one that's used in the article First Jewish Revolt coinage. And finally an article in Haaretz about exactly this legend on coins! [4] --Amble (talk) 21:36, 26 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

October 27

Grammatical case question

In the sentence "The man was bitten by the dog", what is the grammatical case of "dog"? Lantzy : Lantzy 02:28, 27 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

Objective (or accusative if you prefer that terminology). It's the object of the preposition "by". Compare: "The answer was given by me" (not "I"). --184.144.99.72 (talk) 02:58, 27 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

Instrumental case. In English this is indicated by the presence of 'by'; English does not use declension to indicate this case.--2A00:23C8:4583:9F01:716C:7BA1:5958:CB07 (talk) 03:06, 27 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

In modern English, Instrument(al) is more of a thematic relation than a "case" in the usual sense... AnonMoos (talk) 03:35, 27 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

In modern English, it does not really make too much sense to discuss grammatical case, since there are only just a few rudimentary remains of the IE case system (mainly in pronouns). In languages that no longer depend on case, the preposition construct is one way of expressing the same semantic value. Another way is word order: "Man bit dog" vs. "Dog bit man". In a truly case-dependant language, the word order could be irrelevant, since the case of the words for 'man' and 'dog' would tell who bit and who was bitten. --T*U (talk) 07:15, 27 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

Modern English has only rudiments of its older Germanic case system left in the personal pronouns (as also pointed out by 184.144.99.72): I – me; he – him; she – her; we – us; they – them. These forms can't be used interchangeably in standard English; the use of the appropriate form is obligatory, so it is too early to dispose of the notion of grammatical case. The dative and accusative cases of Old English merged, while the genitive and instrumental cases were lost. (Some people consider the possessive form "father's", as in "my father's house", to be the genitive case of English. Although its origin may have been a Germanic case form, linguists today generally no longer classify this as a grammatical case.) Since, next to the nominative/vocative case, the language has now only one grammatical case left, used for all other instances than the subject (with a curious exception for "you and I", as in "between you and I"), it could also be dubbed "the" oblique case, but the term "objective case" is more common. --Lambiam 09:56, 27 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

In Indo-European languages that role is normally expressed by the instrumental or whatever other case it merged into, e.g. ablative in Latin, von + dative in German, and the monolithic "oblique"/"object" case in English. – filelakeshoe (t / c) 🐱 10:36, 27 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

Thanks, what I was really looking for was what case would be used in a language where case distinctions play a big role and are not vestigial as in English. Instrumental is what I was after. Lantzy : Lantzy 00:52, 28 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

October 28

What does " venue locked in for" mean?

Sentence from here: ROH reportedly still has a venue locked in for a WrestleMania 38 Weekend event in Dallas next year, which would be the announced Supercard of Honor event that was mentioned for their return from hiatus in April 2022.

Wrestlemania 38 belongs to WWE and ROH is indy wresting promotion. That means ROH having tie up with WWE for Wrestlemania in Dallas next year? Rizosome (talk) 04:13, 28 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

Are you really asking about what "venue locked in" means, or are you asking about the legal relationship between the various entities? ←Baseball Bugs ^{What's up, Doc?} carrots→ 04:16, 28 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

I am asking what does " venue locked in for" mean? which answers me second question obviously. Rizosome (talk) 05:28, 28 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

See wikt:lock in, the second definition: "To fix the value of (something potentially variable)". In this case the variable would be the venue. Being locked in means the venue is fixed, with the implication is it will not change as "locked in" implies a final/permanent decision.--2A00:23C8:4583:9F01:ED85:5CF1:CA79:E964 (talk) 06:04, 28 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

Opposite to wikt:pencil in. 41.165.67.114 (talk) 07:00, 28 October 2021 (UTC)[reply]

@@ Line 119: / Line 119: @@
 I am asking what does " venue locked in for" mean? which answers me second question obviously. [[User:Rizosome|Rizosome]] ([[User talk:Rizosome|talk]]) 05:28, 28 October 2021 (UTC)
 : See [[:wikt:lock in]], the second definition: ''"To fix the value of (something potentially variable)"''. In this case the variable would be the venue. Being locked in means the venue is fixed, with the implication is it will not change as "locked in" implies a final/permanent decision.--[[Special:Contributions/2A00:23C8:4583:9F01:ED85:5CF1:CA79:E964|2A00:23C8:4583:9F01:ED85:5CF1:CA79:E964]] ([[User talk:2A00:23C8:4583:9F01:ED85:5CF1:CA79:E964|talk]]) 06:04, 28 October 2021 (UTC)
+: Opposite to [[:wikt:pencil in]]. [[Special:Contributions/41.165.67.114|41.165.67.114]] ([[User talk:41.165.67.114|talk]]) 07:00, 28 October 2021 (UTC)