Talk:Expounding of the Law

Question

I have a question:

Who coined the phrase "Antithesis of the Law" for this part of Matthew's Sermon on the Mount?

The phrase was originally used by Marcion, but in reference to how, he claimed, his Gospel of Marcion constrasted with the Old Testament.

Who applied the phrase to this part of Matthew's Sermon on the Mount?

I don't know. I'll look it up. Its commonly used by New Testament scholars apparantly. Clinkophonist 22:36, 5 April 2006 (UTC)

Marcion never used the phrase "Antithesis of the Law," he used the title "Antithesis" for his treaty arguing that the OT Deity and NT Deity were two different beings, which he attempted to show by opposing the OT teachings about God to the NT teachings about Jesus (see Daniel Mahar's reconstruction of the Antithesis). Marcion's concern was mainly theological (in the strict sense of the term), not legal. Regarding the phrase "Antithesis of the Law" it has long been used by Christian scholars, "anti-" being taken from the Greek sense ("in place of"), or the old Latin ("surpassing"). The understanding being, "statements which supercede the Law," as in, going beyond the "letter" of the Law, to the "spirit" of the Law. --MonkeeSage 03:26, 15 April 2006 (UTC)

That sounds like Supersessionism. Antithesis by the way is well defined, no need to invent new definitions.

New definitions are stipulated for words all the time. You really shouldn't ask the question if you don't want the answer. Many Christian scholars use the term antithesis (ἀντί [G473] + τίθημι [G5087]) to refer to this section of the sermon for the reason I stated; I'm also aware of some who see Jesus as setting forth the Rabbinic glosses (midrashim) on the Law and then correcting them (in which case antithesis would have the standard, non-technical meaning). And talk about inventing new definitions — recognizing Marcion's own intention amounts to suppressing it?! Marcionites is linked in the same paragraph you want to put Marcion in, so I'm not a very good "suppressor" am I? So long as it is verifiable, I have no problem including anything in the article, however it is not verifiable that Marcion started the discussion on Jesus' view of the Mosaic Law. --MonkeeSage 06:00, 15 April 2006 (UTC)

I just visited your link to Supersessionism, and I'm not sure what anything I wrote has to do with replacement theology. And even if it were replacement theology, what does that have to do with the matter about Marcion? That sounds like a violation of WP:NPA: "Using someone's affiliations as a means of dismissing or discrediting their views." --MonkeeSage 06:16, 15 April 2006 (UTC)

Did you write "supercede"? Are you aware Supersessionism is derived from supersede? As for antithesis: [1]

Strong's Antithesis G477

Right, "supercede;" statements which not only embrace the Law, but go beyond it. How that is replacement theology is beyond me. And even if it were, that has nothing to do with this topic and amounts to ad hominem. I'm aware of the lexical definition of antithesis; I said that it was a stipulated technical meaning as many scholars use it regarding Matt. 5. Others use it in its normal meaning but make the antithesis between Jesus and the Law-teachers not the Law itself. Still other use it to mean the form of the diatribe, not the content ("you have heard. . .but I say"). In any case, you asked why Christian scholars refer to that portion of the sermon that way, and I answered — I'm not arguing that antithesis is the best or most accurate word to use. --MonkeeSage 11:33, 15 April 2006 (UTC)

Marcion

The reference to Marcion does not belong here. Just because one of the passages of the NT which Marcion altered in his program to systematically remove all reference to the OT from the NT because he thought that the OT Deity was incompatible with the NT Deity, happened to be located near the Antitheses and happened to mention "Law," does not mean that Macrion discussed the Antitheses or the Law in Matt. 5:22ff. He didn't. Therefore, I'm removing the stuff about Marcion again. --MonkeeSage 22:49, 14 April 2006 (UTC)

I'm inclined to agree. Marcion didn't use the gospel of Matthew at all, so it is unlikely that he would use passages from it unless they were also in his version of the Gospel of Luke. Clinkophonist 22:53, 14 April 2006 (UTC)

Henry Wace on Marcion[2]: "Indeed, he sometimes has even to alter the text, e.g. "I am not come to destroy the law, but to fulfil," into "I am not come to fulfil the law, but to destroy.""; From Epiphanius of Salamis' Panarion 42[3] "Luke 23:2 After "...perverting the nation" Marcion added "and destroying the law and the prophets""

Yes, Marcion thought that the religion and God of Jesus destroyed the religion and god of Moses. Aside from tossing out the entire Law with the rest of the OT, because he thought that an evil god revealed it (and not because of any discussion of the specifics of the Law) — what does Marcion have to do with the antitheses of Matt. 5? --MonkeeSage 06:00, 15 April 2006 (UTC)

"I am not come to destroy the law, but to fulfil"? Ring any bells? Does this help: "Indeed, he sometimes has even to alter the text, e.g. "I am not come to destroy the law, but to fulfil," into "I am not come to fulfil the law, but to destroy.""? But your claim is that when Marcion wrote "law" he actually meant "the religion and god of Moses"? And Luke 23:2 is about the "God of Jesus", not Jesus? Free clue: Marcion's Luke 23:2 is about JESUS, and Marcion claims that the accusation against Jesus was that he was destroying the law and the prophets. Understand? The claim is that Jesus was destroying the law and prophets, not fulfilling. On the contrary, Matt. 5 says Jesus did not come to destroy the law and prophets, but to fulfil. Marcion reversed it. Get it?

I understand fine — no need for condescension. Once more, "Just because one of the passages of the NT which Marcion altered in his program to systematically remove all reference to the OT from the NT because he thought that the OT Deity was incompatible with the NT Deity, happened to be located near the Antitheses and happened to mention "Law," does not mean that Macrion discussed the Antitheses or the Law in Matt. 5:22ff. He didn't." You are apparently trying to argue that Marcion was interested in discussing the Law qua Law and Jesus' interpretation, when really his only purpose was to do away with the Law on the grounds that it was revealed by an "alien" deity who was not the God of Jesus. Marcion never raised the issues of legalism and antinomianism; he bypassed the whole topic by religating the OT, including the Law, to the category of uninspired literature (or, at most, inspired by an inferior deity). Yes, he changed the text to say that Jesus would destroy the Law, but not because Marcion had discussed the Law and Jesus' views on it — because his idea of Jesus and a different NT God necessitated that view (He couldn't have Jesus affirming the OT Law, or else Jesus would be validating the OT god). --MonkeeSage 11:33, 15 April 2006 (UTC)

Divorce

A few of points about the Divorce Antithesis:

• The "hates" in Mal. 2:16 is understood as an action on the part of the husband in the main text of several modern translations (ESV, HCSB). Cf. M. A. Shields, Syncretism and Divorce in Malachi 2,10-16, in ZAW, vol. 111 (1999), pp. 68-86. This is consistant with the LXX rendering, as well as Deu. 24:3. In any case, the Deu. passage is unequivocal.

• Mark 10:11-12 and Luke 16:18 don't actually condemn divorce, only remarriage. Verse 31 is not related to the topic of divorce at all (mabye a typo?).

• 1 Cor 7 is ambiguous — Paul doesn't say he is referring to Jesus, so he could very well be speaking of the Mosaic statutes. Also, it is not clear that he is invoking apostolic privilege, as he may be engaging in midrash, with his meaning being something akin to "the Lord didn't say this directly, but this is the nuanced meaning." I'm not pushing for the latter point, just voicing the possibility.

• "Koine Greek" is more accurate than "Greek language," even though the word may have existed in earlier forms, since the meanings are not always the same in each form, and the Matthew use is Koine.

• Isa. 57:3 uses μοιχῶν in the context of idol worship (cf. v. 5). Jer. 3:8 uses ἐμοιχᾶτο (cf. 5:7, 7:9, &c). Eze. 23:37 uses ἐμοιχῶντο (cf. v. 43, 45). And elsewhere through-out the prophets. Granted that in some of the these passages it is used metaphorically, picturing Israel as God's wife, but in others there is no mention of a marital relationship, only a covenant relationship. So πορνεία seems to emphasize the moral lewdness or unlawfulness of the act, while μοιχεία seems to emphasize the unfaithfulness of it to the marriage covenant.

• While γυνή may be used of "women" in general (just like ἀνήρ is used of "men" in general), it is a distinct word for "wife," as αρσην and θῆλυς are used for "male" and "female" when the meaning is general.

• Calling the "ironic" interpretation "abstruse" seems biased and ethnocentric. This type of reasoning was not at all abstruse to 1st century Jews in Palestine, it is a common midrashic technique. While this may not be the correct interpretation, and while it may seem strained to us, this type of "irony" was used very often in that period. --MonkeeSage 15:15, 15 April 2006 (UTC)

Article's title is an incorrect POV

This article is poorly named. As the introduction correctly notes, it a) states clearly in the text itself that it is NOT intended as an antithesis or negation of the Law; and b) none of the specific teachings are strictly speaking 'antitheses' or negations of the comparable laws. "Antithesis of the Law" may allegedly be a phrase used by Marcion, but why should the Marcionist pov be officially endorsed by wikipedia? Please explain. ፈቃደ (ውይይት) 17:14, 15 April 2006 (UTC)

Agreed. Expounding of the Law is npov and more accurate. However, "Antithesis of the Law" is a phrase used in certain Christian circles. It would be nice if someone could figure out who was the first to coin this phrase for this section of Matthew, and then add that information to the article.209.78.16.73 17:27, 15 April 2006 (UTC)

I'm not sure exactly who coined the term, but I think I recall seeing it as early as Jerome or Augustine, but I could be mistaken about that. Some current authors who have used the term: Greg L. Bahnsen, Theonomy in Christian Ethics (3rd ed.), 91-97; John Murray, Principles of Conduct, 160-178; Ned B. Stonehouse, The Witness of Matthew and Mark to Christ, 196-209. To my knowledge Marcion never used the term "Antithesis" in any connection to the sermon on the mount, or the Law, nor did he ever discuss the issue. I don't really have a problem with the title change, though. I'm adding a redirect for Antithesis of the Law so linked pages don't break. --MonkeeSage 17:44, 15 April 2006 (UTC)

NM, it already redirects. --MonkeeSage 17:47, 15 April 2006 (UTC)

Tertullian on Marcion

[4]

"Marcion's special and principal work is the separation of the law and the gospel; and his disciples will not deny that in this point they have their very best pretext for initiating and confirming themselves in his heresy. These are Marcion's Antitheses, or contradictory propositions, which aim at committing the gospel to a variance with the law, in order that from the diversity of the two documents which contain them, they may contend for a diversity of gods also. Since, therefore, it is this very opposition between the law and the gospel which has suggested that the God of the gospel is different from the God of the law, it is clear that, before the said separation, that god could not have been known who became known from the argument of the separation itself."

"MARCION, JUSTIFYING HIS ANTITHESIS BETWEEN THE LAW AND THE GOSPEL BY THE CONTENTION OF ST. PAUL WITH ST. PETER, SHOWN TO HAVE MISTAKEN ST. PAUL'S POSITION AND ARGUMENT. MARCION'S DOCTRINE CONFUTED OUT OF ST. PAUL'S TEACHING, WHICH AGREES WHOLLY WITH THE CREATOR'S DECREES."