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April 11
Reviews of and references to The Making of the Black Working Class in Britain, Ron Ramdin
I'm drafting an article on this book, and would like to know if it was reviewed in academic journals / newspapers and how it was received (both in 1987 when first published, and when the recent revised edition came out). It would also be interesting to know how academics have referred to it / criticised it meanwhile, particularly any articles that might focus on it (not sure if there will be any). I don't have access to JStor etc., and do not have enough edits to have access via Wikipedia. Are you able to help me out in any way? Thanks. Crinoline (talk) 18:05, 11 April 2021 (UTC)
- Thanks Loafiewa for sending a link to a review. I am not sure if I should thank you here, on my user page or on your user page - apologies for any mistake! It may be a short while before I download the review. Crinoline (talk) 20:15, 11 April 2021 (UTC)
- There are several reviews and citations listed on Microsoft Academic; on Semantic Scholar; and on Google Scholar. Andy Mabbett (Pigsonthewing); Talk to Andy; Andy's edits 13:31, 12 April 2021 (UTC)
How did Nelson become a popular name among Ibero-Americans?
If you look at Nelson (given name), you'll see a significant number of South Americans and Portuguese have this name. Does anyone know how it became popular in these regions? LANTZYTALK 22:56, 11 April 2021 (UTC)
- Not sure how to find the answer. I quick check in 19th google books give quite a few people having Nelson as family name, but I would presume that the usage of Nelson as a given name was popularized by Nelson Mandela (we have similar developments with other names of famous people becoming common given names in Latin America). --Soman (talk) 16:14, 12 April 2021 (UTC)
- Or perhaps by Horatio Nelson, the hero of the Battle of Trafalgar? Futurist110 (talk) 20:24, 12 April 2021 (UTC)
- At least in Brazil, nothing to do with Mandela. Skimming the article names in WP:pt, use was already established by the end of the 19th century and became quite widespread before WW2. Indeed, most likely from Horatio, but why? Perhaps cnnected to the historic Anglo-Portuguese alliance. (Incidentally, many imported ---ON names seem popular in Brazil: Emerson, Everton, Gilson, Gibson.....). Davidships (talk) 20:43, 12 April 2021 (UTC)
- See Talk:Portuguese name#Nelson is not a "non-Portuguese given name in Brazil" which has opinions that it a native Brazilian name (seems unlikely), or that it came via Portugal where Horatio Nelson was revered as a hero. The Portuguese were indeed saved from the clutches of Napoleon by the British, which would not have been possible without Trafalgar. Alansplodge (talk) 22:00, 12 April 2021 (UTC)
Just moved in to a new apartment, and a few days later, a guy from Cape Verde, a former Portuguese colony, moved in upstairs and introduced himself as Denílson, and explained it was a traditional Portuguese name. My guess is that Nelson as a Portuguese name is influenced by the already existing Denílson. They sound similar. Any particular connection with Horatio seems farfetched to me. 2601:183:C100:8AC0:BCCE:9A3E:DB32:99E (talk) 13:15, 14 April 2021 (UTC)
- Neither "Nelson" nor "Denilson" are native Portuguese words - no native Portuguese word ends in "n". This is why people are uncertain when they write the word whether to place an acute accent over the "e" of "Nelson" and the "i" of "Denilson". Both names appear to have come into use in the twentieth century. 209.93.196.223 (talk) 15:43, 14 April 2021 (UTC)
- As I noted above, in Brazil definitely established by the late 19th century - these notables are unlikely to have been the first: Nelson Parijós (1884, politician), Nélson Romero (1890, philologist), Nélson Hungria (1891, lawyer), Nelson Alves (1895 musician), Nélson de Melo (1899, soldier), Nelson Pereira Ehlers (pre-1900?, politician). May have arrived with 19th century English-speaking immigration from UK and, particlarly, US after the civil war. "Denílson" seems much less common and more recent, as is "Everton"; but "Gilson" has been around since at least the 1900s. Davidships (talk) 01:50, 15 April 2021 (UTC)
- Coronel Leopoldo Nelson was born in 1836 in Buenos Aires (Spanish speakers have no problems with words ending in "n"). He was the son of Leopoldo Nelson y Hartwig, who was born in Denmark, and founded the township of Nelson in Santa Fe province, Argentina. I would have put an acute accent over the vowel in "Fe", but it seems not to be required in Spanish. 89.240.113.75 (talk) 17:49, 15 April 2021 (UTC)
- As I noted above, in Brazil definitely established by the late 19th century - these notables are unlikely to have been the first: Nelson Parijós (1884, politician), Nélson Romero (1890, philologist), Nélson Hungria (1891, lawyer), Nelson Alves (1895 musician), Nélson de Melo (1899, soldier), Nelson Pereira Ehlers (pre-1900?, politician). May have arrived with 19th century English-speaking immigration from UK and, particlarly, US after the civil war. "Denílson" seems much less common and more recent, as is "Everton"; but "Gilson" has been around since at least the 1900s. Davidships (talk) 01:50, 15 April 2021 (UTC)
April 12
Has it ever been argued that the RICO statute violates the Free Association clause of The First Amendment?
Hello, Wikipedians I was curious about whether or not the RICO statute has ever challenged on the grounds that it violates the First Amendment`s Free Association Clause? The reason I asked is because I was watching a documentary where the warden of a prison said it`s not a crime in itself to be a member of a gang. If so then isn`t RICO a violation of the Free Association Clause of the First Amendment which says you can be a member of any type of organization you want even a criminal one?
- According to the article Racketeer_Influenced_and_Corrupt_Organizations_Act it is not a crime to associate with the other person, but it is a crime to order or assist that person with a crime. RudolfRed (talk) 03:02, 12 April 2021 (UTC)
- What "free association" clause are you referring to? ←Baseball Bugs What's up, Doc? carrots→ 03:31, 12 April 2021 (UTC)
- For more information see under First Amendment to the United States Constitution#Freedom of association. --184.147.181.129 (talk) 07:58, 12 April 2021 (UTC)
- How does conspiracy to commit a crime fit into it? ←Baseball Bugs What's up, Doc? carrots→ 11:01, 12 April 2021 (UTC)
- I suppose that an argument could be made that just because one is associating with criminals, it doesn't necessarily mean one is conspiring with them to commit crimes: one's association might be innocent unless there is proof to the contrary. {The poster formerly known as 87.81.230.195} 2.219.35.136 (talk) 19:56, 12 April 2021 (UTC)
- I have never heard of mere foreknowledge being enough to constitute being an accessory in the United States. I think (and I'm not a lawyer) that generally it requires some overt act in furtherance. There's the (rarely charged, I think) offense of misprision, but that's a different thing. --Trovatore (talk) 17:11, 13 April 2021 (UTC)
- Well, you're slipping in "accessory" there as though it were the same thing, but it isn't. An accessory before the fact is generally considered just as criminally liable as a principal (with some exceptions regarding the death penalty — see Enmund v Florida). But misprision of felony is a distinct offense, and the liability may be much less if the underlying crime is serious. Also I gather that misprision is not a very common charge. The only case I know of is Michael Fortier, who pled guilty to misprision as part of a plea bargain; presumably this was to avoid being tried on charges of actually being part of the conspiracy. (Our article suggests he was convicted as an "accomplice" but I think that is incorrect.) --Trovatore (talk) 17:33, 14 April 2021 (UTC)
- Fair enough. I've modified my initial answers to remove inaccuracies from them. You clearly know more about this than I do, and it was wrong of me to mislead the OP and other readers in my responses. That, and the inability to stop myself from doing so even though I know it is wrong, are my major character flaws. Mea culpa. Carry on. --Jayron32 17:46, 14 April 2021 (UTC)
- Well, you're slipping in "accessory" there as though it were the same thing, but it isn't. An accessory before the fact is generally considered just as criminally liable as a principal (with some exceptions regarding the death penalty — see Enmund v Florida). But misprision of felony is a distinct offense, and the liability may be much less if the underlying crime is serious. Also I gather that misprision is not a very common charge. The only case I know of is Michael Fortier, who pled guilty to misprision as part of a plea bargain; presumably this was to avoid being tried on charges of actually being part of the conspiracy. (Our article suggests he was convicted as an "accomplice" but I think that is incorrect.) --Trovatore (talk) 17:33, 14 April 2021 (UTC)
- I have never heard of mere foreknowledge being enough to constitute being an accessory in the United States. I think (and I'm not a lawyer) that generally it requires some overt act in furtherance. There's the (rarely charged, I think) offense of misprision, but that's a different thing. --Trovatore (talk) 17:11, 13 April 2021 (UTC)
- I suppose that an argument could be made that just because one is associating with criminals, it doesn't necessarily mean one is conspiring with them to commit crimes: one's association might be innocent unless there is proof to the contrary. {The poster formerly known as 87.81.230.195} 2.219.35.136 (talk) 19:56, 12 April 2021 (UTC)
- How does conspiracy to commit a crime fit into it? ←Baseball Bugs What's up, Doc? carrots→ 11:01, 12 April 2021 (UTC)
- For more information see under First Amendment to the United States Constitution#Freedom of association. --184.147.181.129 (talk) 07:58, 12 April 2021 (UTC)
- It seems that the premise is flawed. I'm free to associate with Al Capone - that's not a crime (especially not any more, since he's dead). But if he tells me about crimes he's done or crimes he's planning, I may be liable for prosecution - see Accessory for details on "before the fact" and "after the fact" accessories. If he and I both commit crimes in a related fashion, that's where it starts to be defined as racketeering and I am no longer "only" an accessory. But if he and I just discuss baseball history, it's no problem. Matt Deres (talk) 14:57, 13 April 2021 (UTC)
- I don't see anything in your link that suggests you can be an accessory just because he tells you his plans and you do nothing. --Trovatore (talk) 17:19, 13 April 2021 (UTC)
- RICO's purpose is to remove the legal ambiguity of Alan tells Bob that Charlie is a problem. Bob then tells Dom to take care of Charlie. Charlie is killed. Prior to RICO, it was difficult to charge Alan and potentially Bob with any crime but under RICO, a series of conversations like this create a pattern that is chargeable. Nowhere in the situation did the mere association of Alan, Bob and Don become illegal even if they were all members of "Nice Guys Clubhouse" Slywriter (talk) 16:52, 13 April 2021 (UTC)
- Which is why it's known as the Defence of Turbulent priests Act. Temerarius (talk) 01:40, 14 April 2021 (UTC)
April 13
Purported School Milk Act 1946
According to Wikipedia and other unreliable sources on the internet there was a "School Milk Act 1946" providing free school milk "in schools to all children under the age of 18". I can find no trace of this purported Act in Hansard. I suspect it (free school milk) was done by Statutory Instrument or Departmental circular. Can anyone help clarify this? Thank you, DuncanHill (talk) 19:48, 13 April 2021 (UTC)
- I have found a few references to the "Provision of Free Milk Regulations, 1946", which may be the statutory instrument in question. It was "Given under the Official Seal of the Minister of Education this 27th day of July, 1946" according to this and was "MADE BY THE MINISTER OF EDUCATION UNDER SECTION 49 OF EDUCATION ACT , 1944 ( 7 & 8 Geo . 6. C. 31 )" says Statutory Rules and Orders Other Than Those of a Local, Personal Or Temporary Character, Volume 1 (p. 429), HMSO London, 1946. Alansplodge (talk) 21:30, 13 April 2021 (UTC)
- First clarification: we are talking about England.
- The statement first appeared in Wikipedia in 2008 so any later source may have copied the information from Wikipedia.
- Here is a web page that at least does not appear to have been copied from Wikipedia. It attributes the "Free School Milk Act" to Ellen Wilkinson and gives the date 1945 rather than 1946. On the other hand, Clement Attlee is misspelled in the same sentence, so I don't think this information can be considered reliable either.
- Here is a 2014 newspaper article that refers to a Free School Milk Act with the date 1946. --184.147.181.129 (talk) 21:54, 13 April 2021 (UTC)
- Here is a British Medical Journal item that refers to a "School Milk Act" of 1946. But that was written in 2011.
- I searched at legislation.gov.uk for the word "milk" in all legislation in 1945, 1946, or 1947. There were only two hits. One was irrelevant and the other was the place in the Education Act 1946, where it specifies that buildings used only "for affording facilities for providing milk, meals or other refreshment for pupils" are not deemed to be part of the school buildings.
- So I think Duncan is right to be suspicious and Alan's suggestion that it was a regulation and not an act is right. The next place I'd want to check is British newspapers from 1946 or thereabouts, but I only have online access to Toronto newspapers. --184.147.181.129 (talk) 21:54, 13 April 2021 (UTC)
- The statement first appeared in Wikipedia in 2008 so any later source may have copied the information from Wikipedia.
- Was the regulation really confined to England, or would it have applied to the whole UK? -- Jack of Oz [pleasantries] 22:43, 13 April 2021 (UTC)
- It would have been for England and Wales. I expect similar provisions would have been made for Scotland, but as Northern Ireland had home rule at the time under the Government of Ireland Act 1920 the UK govt would not have had a say there. DuncanHill (talk) 22:56, 13 April 2021 (UTC)
- At some point in my earlier searching I saw a reference to England and Wales (meaning "England, including Wales") but both the 1944 and the 1946 acts are "UK Public General Acts" according to legislation.gov.uk,
so I guess it was the whole UK. --184.147.181.129 (talk) 23:01, 13 April 2021 (UTC)- No, the 1944 act applies only to England and Wales. Scottish education is always treated separately, and as I said, NI had home rule. DuncanHill (talk) 23:09, 13 April 2021 (UTC)
- And the Education Act 1946 provides "This Act shall not extend to Scotland or to Northern Ireland". DuncanHill (talk) 23:14, 13 April 2021 (UTC)
- Thanks for the corrections. --184.147.181.129 (talk) 03:31, 14 April 2021 (UTC)
- The Education (Scotland) Act 1945 appears to be the analogue. Alansplodge (talk) 23:42, 13 April 2021 (UTC)
- I think that was more of a consolidating act. See Education in Scotland in the twentieth century DuncanHill (talk) 23:51, 13 April 2021 (UTC)
- At some point in my earlier searching I saw a reference to England and Wales (meaning "England, including Wales") but both the 1944 and the 1946 acts are "UK Public General Acts" according to legislation.gov.uk,
- Thanks @Alansplodge: and 184.147.181.129 I think it's clear it was by regulation not Act. I found this report by the Medical Officer of Health for Ilford which says "As from 6th August, 1946, milk in schools has been supplied free of charge in accordance with the Provision of Free Milk Regulations, 1946", which seems clear enough. DuncanHill (talk) 15:21, 14 April 2021 (UTC)
- (edit conflict)This [1] says:
Section 49 of the 1944 (Butler) Education Act required LEAs to provide school milk as a statutory duty and in August 1946 charges to parents were abolished.
Ellen Wilkinson explained in parliament what the government was going to do [2]. 209.93.196.223 (talk) 15:33, 14 April 2021 (UTC)
April 14
Why did the Almohads fail to eliminate the Jewish presence in North Africa like they did with the Christian presence there?
Why did the Almohads fail to eliminate the Jewish presence in North Africa like they did with the Christian presence there? Was it because the Jewish population in North Africa was subsequently replenished by Jewish refugees from Iberia fleeing the Christian Reconquista of the Iberian Peninsula? Or was there also some other reason for this–and, if so, what exactly? Futurist110 (talk) 22:25, 14 April 2021 (UTC)
- Jews fulfilled a need, they performed unclean jobs.
Sleigh (talk)- And Christians couldn't do this why, exactly? Futurist110 (talk) 03:16, 15 April 2021 (UTC)
- Christians and Muslims were not allowed to engage in money lending and banking in those days, because of strict interpretations of religious prohibitions against usury. The Jews filled the gap when they had the opportunity. To be clear, the Almohads were extremely repressive against both Jews and Christians, and most Jewish communities under their rule were eliminated. Many Jews survived by nominally converting to Islam, often at the point of a sword, while maintaining their Jewish identity in secret. While Christians had been dominant in Iberia for centuries, the Jews had long experience surviving and sometimes thriving as second class citizens, and may have been in a slightly better position to adapt. Catholic historian Paul Johnson (writer) describes the repression quite clearly in his book "A History of the Jews" on pages 178-179, where he wrote, "The splendid Jewish settlements of southern Spain did not survive this persecution, at least in any of their old dignity and grandeur." Maimonides was the most influential Jewish figure of the era, who encouraged Jews to feign conversion to Islam in order to avoid slaughter. Maimonides himself became a refugee from Almohad repression, spending his teenage years wandering from Spain to France to Morocco to Palestine and eventually settling in Cairo, which was not under Almohad rule. Cullen328 Let's discuss it 04:05, 15 April 2021 (UTC)
- Why did the Maghrebi Christians not likewise feign conversion to Islam during the Almohads' reign and then revert back to Christianity when things looked a bit better for them? I know that the traditional Islamic penalty for apostasy was death, but AFAIK this was true for anyone who left Islam for any religion–including Judaism. Futurist110 (talk) 06:17, 15 April 2021 (UTC)
- Christians and Muslims were not allowed to engage in money lending and banking in those days, because of strict interpretations of religious prohibitions against usury. The Jews filled the gap when they had the opportunity. To be clear, the Almohads were extremely repressive against both Jews and Christians, and most Jewish communities under their rule were eliminated. Many Jews survived by nominally converting to Islam, often at the point of a sword, while maintaining their Jewish identity in secret. While Christians had been dominant in Iberia for centuries, the Jews had long experience surviving and sometimes thriving as second class citizens, and may have been in a slightly better position to adapt. Catholic historian Paul Johnson (writer) describes the repression quite clearly in his book "A History of the Jews" on pages 178-179, where he wrote, "The splendid Jewish settlements of southern Spain did not survive this persecution, at least in any of their old dignity and grandeur." Maimonides was the most influential Jewish figure of the era, who encouraged Jews to feign conversion to Islam in order to avoid slaughter. Maimonides himself became a refugee from Almohad repression, spending his teenage years wandering from Spain to France to Morocco to Palestine and eventually settling in Cairo, which was not under Almohad rule. Cullen328 Let's discuss it 04:05, 15 April 2021 (UTC)
- And Christians couldn't do this why, exactly? Futurist110 (talk) 03:16, 15 April 2021 (UTC)
- Futurist110 -- According to formal Islamic law, monotheistic minorities are supposed to be protected in Muslim lands, as long as they do not defy their Muslim rulers (though this has not always been observed in practice, of course). Traditionally, Muslims have sometimes treated Jews with more toleration than they did Christians, since Jews weren't a military threat. It was only in the 20th century that Christian minorities began to be more protected than Jews... AnonMoos (talk) 06:17, 15 April 2021 (UTC)
- According to Christianity in Africa § After the Muslim conquest of Eastern Roman North Africa, the Almohad Abd al-Mu'min forced the Christians and Jews of Tunis to convert in 1159. So this is evidence of at least some Almohads not respecting the status assigned by the Qur'an to the People of the Book. --Lambiam 10:17, 15 April 2021 (UTC)
April 15
Was Brexit the UK 'seceding' from the EU
Would it be correct to say that the UK seceded from the EU? I'm not the student, I'm the prof, and I asked students to provide examples of an 'identity/secession' conflict - and a student answered that Brexit is an example of secession - using this definition, 'the definition of secession is breaking away from an organization, group, or country'. Interesting example I thought. but is s/he correct? Unsure myself...— Preceding unsigned comment added by 2a02:a447:a6cd:1:41c7:496:9942:18af (talk) 09:37, 15 April 2021 (UTC)
- The term is used in the literature for this type of event, as seen in the article titles 'Secession From the European Union: Checking Out of the Proverbial "Cockroach Motel"',[3] or simply "Secession from the European Union".[4] It is seen specifically used for Brexit in "The Constitutional Impact of National Referendums and the UK’s Secession from the EU"[5] and "Unions and Their Break-ups: the UK's attempted secession from the EU, and its possible outcomes".[6] --Lambiam 10:28, 15 April 2021 (UTC)
Hi Lambiam, I'm the OP. Thanks for that. Very helpful, exactly what I needed. I was able to use your answer in my lecture - both to answer the question, and also introduce the Wikipedia Reference Desk and its usefulness to my students. Cheers.— Preceding unsigned comment added by 2a02:a447:a6cd:1:dc5d:1620:b9a2:a10c (talk) 15:29, 15 April 2021 (UTC)
politician death
I dimly remember reading about a politician here and the circumstances of his death were kind of suspicious, and I think it was either in the early 90's or the early 2000's and he also had a two-part surname (like Gold-something or Something-baum), and I think he was something like a state governor and the state was either in the Midwest (maybe South) or it had "M" in it. Does anyone by chance know who I mean. It really bothers me that I can't remember Aecho6Ee (talk) 16:03, 15 April 2021 (UTC)
- Leon Jordan died under mysterious circumstances and his murder was never solved; he was from Missouri. --Jayron32 16:51, 15 April 2021 (UTC)
- There was Paul Wellstone who died in the right time frame (2002) and in an unusual way (plane crash) who was from Minnesota. --Jayron32 17:01, 15 April 2021 (UTC)
- Yes, Wellstone it is (I think...) Thank you so much! Aecho6Ee (talk) 17:40, 15 April 2021 (UTC)
Semilong, Northampton
There is an area of Northampton called Semilong. It's an odd name. What is its derivation? Thank you, DuncanHill (talk) 22:46, 15 April 2021 (UTC)
- The name perpetuated in a street called Semilong is probably a corruption of South Millwong; for Henry Coup of Northampton in the reign of Henry IV mentions in his will 3 acres of arable land in the field of Kingsthorpe above the furlong called 'Southmylleuonge' and in 1555 John Bayley was ordered to enlarge his ditch at 'South mylle uonge' near his mill on penalty of 6s. 8d.
- A History of the County of Northampton: Volume 4 (1937) - Parishes: Kingsthorpe, Pages 81-88
- "Wong is a fairly common field-name element, derived originally from the. Old Norse -vangr". [7]
- Alansplodge (talk) 23:07, 15 April 2021 (UTC)
- Many thanks, wong is a new one on me! DuncanHill (talk) 00:10, 16 April 2021 (UTC)
- It occurs in Wetwang, a name borrowed by Tolkien for the "Lord of the Rings"... AnonMoos (talk) 02:52, 16 April 2021 (UTC)
April 16
Who's with Halifax?
Who is the military type seen in this picture with Edward Wood, 1st Earl of Halifax? The picture is captioned "Lord Halifax, British Ambassador to the United States (left), with an unidentified military officer waiting for the arrival of British Prime Minister Clement Attlee at the National Airport in Washington, D.C., November 10, 1945". Thank you, DuncanHill (talk) 00:16, 16 April 2021 (UTC)
- Train of thought - if it's an ambassador waiting for the PM, the green job is probably the defence attache of the time. So a quick look for lists of UK defence attache's to the USA gives British Defence Staff - US and the one in 1945 was Henry Maitland Wilson. Looks about right to me. Nanonic (talk) 00:43, 16 April 2021 (UTC)
- Yup... looks like Jumbo Wilson to me. Blueboar (talk) 01:36, 16 April 2021 (UTC)
- Thank you both, I'm sure you're right. @Nanonic: - I don't know what you mean by "green job" - British soldiers are traditionally known as brown jobs (but not to their faces). DuncanHill (talk) 15:48, 16 April 2021 (UTC)
- Same thing, could call them Pongo's too but that'd be even more obscure :D Nanonic (talk) 15:18, 17 April 2021 (UTC)
- "Where the army goes..." DuncanHill (talk) 15:28, 17 April 2021 (UTC)
- Same thing, could call them Pongo's too but that'd be even more obscure :D Nanonic (talk) 15:18, 17 April 2021 (UTC)
- Thank you both, I'm sure you're right. @Nanonic: - I don't know what you mean by "green job" - British soldiers are traditionally known as brown jobs (but not to their faces). DuncanHill (talk) 15:48, 16 April 2021 (UTC)
- Yup... looks like Jumbo Wilson to me. Blueboar (talk) 01:36, 16 April 2021 (UTC)
Indian state boundaries
Per States Reorganisation Act, 1956, I know that state boundaries generally reflect linguistic boundaries. But on a really granular level, how were the boundaries determined? Did they draw lines midway between villages with different languages (e.g. this village speaks Kannada and that one speaks Malayam, so let's put the Karnataka-Kerala border in the middle), or were they partly influenced by physical geography too, e.g. let's follow a river or mountain for a while, even if it leaves a few people on the "wrong" side of the border by a couple of kilometres? I wondered if state boundaries might have followed boundaries of existing districts, but List of districts in India doesn't say anything about the history of the district concept, so I don't have idea how to prove or disprove this. Nyttend backup (talk) 14:27, 16 April 2021 (UTC)
- I don't know all the details, but essentially the process was political rather than ethnographic. Clearly the backers of this legislation wanted to avoid having a myriad of exclaves and enclaves. The number of linguistic groups that were given their own state was clearly capped (especially in relation to the North-East or the tribal areas of central India). The Hindi-speaking states where not merged into a single entity (which would have created a type of RSFSR situation). The 1956 reform didn't completely reset the provincial-division logic of British India. The districts of the British India administration were largely retained, I don't think many districts were bifurcated to fit the new states but rather prior district boundaries where retained. --Soman (talk) 15:23, 16 April 2021 (UTC)
- Nyttend -- they had the results of the Linguistic Survey of India. Sometimes the old Princely State boundaries were changed quite a bit (see File:Karnataka_1956_Reorg.svg etc). AnonMoos (talk) 22:39, 16 April 2021 (UTC)
Who's with Lloyd George?
Who is this man on a postcard with David Lloyd George? Thanks, DuncanHill (talk) 19:15, 16 April 2021 (UTC)
Unhelpful sidetrack |
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The following discussion has been closed. Please do not modify it. |
DuncanHill, if you want to know who’s with Lloyd George, you need to tell me the name of the file. Answermeplease11 (talk) 16:22, 18 April 2021 (UTC) Answermeplease11
DuncanHill, do you have an Imgur account. If so, ask this in the comment section: “In the postcard, who is George Lloyd standing next to? Plus, why are you even asking? Answermeplease11 (talk) 16:41, 18 April 2021 (UTC) Answermeplease11
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April 17
Military ribbon ID
What is this ribbon worn by Catherine Dior (enlarge the pic bottom right on the link to see it)? I can find reference to it being the Resistance Medal ribbon, which looks different. Ericoides (talk) 07:37, 17 April 2021 (UTC)
- Possibly the Cross of Valour (Poland) which that article also said she was awarded. Nanonic (talk) 15:17, 17 April 2021 (UTC)
British styles
Hi! I'm a German, I have a question regarding British royal styles. In the Royal_and_noble_titles_and_styles of Prince Philip, Duke of Edingburgh, why is Lieutenant included? He got promoted to Lieutenant in 1942, but the rank only becomes part of his style in 1947 - why? And why is it dropped later that same year? Is every military rank part of the style? If yes, why are his earlier and later ranks (Sub-Lieutenant, Lieutenant Commander) not included? --95.91.210.110 (talk) 11:26, 17 April 2021 (UTC)
- Military rank is normally only included in style when you don’t have a peerage (Lord, Duke, Prince, etc). The list reflects this. Prior to 1947 Philip was styled with his Greek title (HRH Prince Phillip of Greece). However, in 1947, Philip renounced his Greek title and became a UK citizen (ie he was no longer entitled to be styled Prince or Royal Highness). At that point, he had no “title”... the only style that applied was his military rank (at that time, Lieutenant). However, as time passed, he was granted various British titles (Prince Consort, Duke etc.) those took precedence. His military ranks were no longer used in style. Blueboar (talk) 13:43, 17 April 2021 (UTC)
April 18
Here are a few questions about Sandro Botticelli‘s Birth of Venus
1. The first question is a silly one. Why are none of them smiling?
- Because they know they are in a very serious, famous painting. Plus, because they didn't have Netflix and stuff, people in the old days didn't smile as much.
2. Why does Zephyr have long hair, and why is he frowning? Can anyone tell me his emotion based on his face?
- Because there was no electricity, people waited a lot longer to get haircuts. It's a Saturday, and he is worried about when the nearest barbershop is going to open (they didn't have weekend shopping like we do now).
3. Is the goddess who Zephyr is carrying possibly frightened? Her face looks a bit like that when you first see it.
- Yes, she's frightened - it's her first flight. Because there were no jet aircraft and traffic control, flying was a lot more dangerous. You had to do it manually.
4. Does Venus have abs, and also, is she pregnant? First, you can see four bumps above her stomach, and second, her belly looks big.
- She works out, but... she's just been born, so .... look, why don't you call the Uffizi and ask them? There are contact details on their website. Unlike when the picture was painted, it will be open on Sundays.
Please answer all my questions
Answermeplease11 (talk) 00:07, 18 April 2021 (UTC)
- Glad to help out.--Shirt58 (talk) 01:59, 18 April 2021 (UTC)
Can anyone tell me some information about this painting by Peter Paul Rubens?
This question is about Venus at a Mirror. I have four things I want to know about it.
1. Is the boy with the wings holding the mirror Cupid?
2. Why does Venus have an arm bracelet
3. Who is the Black lady, and what is her name? Also, is she a real life person?
4. Where does this painting take place?
Please answer these questions, and if you dont know, I dont care. Answermeplease11 (talk) 00:44, 18 April 2021 (UTC) Answermeplease11
- A more useful link is File:Rubens_Venus_at_a_Mirror_c1615.jpg. It appears to have both Classicizing and contemporary Renaissance features... AnonMoos (talk) 03:57, 18 April 2021 (UTC)
- This historical medicine article says: "the dark‐skinned female typically described as the Venus’ maidservant".
- For the relationship between Venus and Cupid, see Cupid: "He is often portrayed as the son of the love goddess Venus and the god of war Mars".
- A similar composition had been painted in 1555 by Titian, see Venus with a Mirror and a later version by Diego Velázquez, see Rokeby Venus, but neither includes the second woman.
- Alansplodge (talk) 10:03, 18 April 2021 (UTC)
- Since the child holding up the mirror has wings, this is undoubtedly Cupid, like in the earlier painting Venus with a Mirror by Titian (who also painted another version, a copy by Rubens of a lost copy of which, older than this Venus, has been preserved[8]). In fact, the main reason for identifying the woman with Venus is the fact that in mythology she is the mother of Cupid. The gold bracelet, set with precious stones, accentuates the central figure's nudity. It may have been a high fashion thing in Rubens' days. Other than signalling high status, I doubt it has a symbolic significance. --Lambiam 12:27, 18 April 2021 (UTC)
But still, where does the painting take place? You havent answered that question yet.
Answermeplease11 (talk) 16:19, 18 April 2021 (UTC) Answermeplease11
Seeking answers about paintings
I have questions about paintings, please to answer them.
1. Why have people blue skin in this painting by Picasso. Is they related to Naʼvi peoples?
2. Why leftside woman be all nude? Why she does not wear loin cloth like other Naʼvi peoples?
3. Why is eye of woman of another pianting by Picasso in its wrong spot. Is the model a mutant? Can she be fixed by plastic surgery?
Luvstalk (talk) 13:09, 18 April 2021 (UTC)
- 1. See Picasso's Blue Period.
- 2. See Nude (art).
- 3. See Cubism.
- Alansplodge (talk) 14:12, 18 April 2021 (UTC)
I have a few questions about Bouguereau‘s Birth of Venus
1. Why is Cupid so young in this painting, when Psyche is at least a young adult?
2. Is the angel reaching for the dolphin female?
3. Can centaurs even swim?
4. What is the black thing in between the centaur who is not blowing the conch shell’s legs?
5. Is the crown who the nymph on the right is wearing made out of seaweed? Also, why is she even wearing it?
6. Why are there two dolphins, when the other paintings of Venus Anadyomene have none?
7. On the wikipedia page, it says that there is a shadow in the clouds that is supposed to be a silhouette of William-Adolphe Bouguereau, but where is it?
Answermeplease11 (talk) 16:18, 18 April 2021 (UTC) Answermeplease11
- We have an article, The Birth of Venus (Bouguereau). Click on the blue links in the references section for more information. It may be time to start doing your own research. Alansplodge (talk) 16:23, 18 April 2021 (UTC)
Alansplodge, are you frustrated with me? The only reason I wont watch the video is because I’m worried it’ll either have less than 100 likes, less than 1000 likes, or it will have more dislikes than likes.
Answermeplease11 (talk) 16:28, 18 April 2021 (UTC) Answermeplease11
- That's not really what we're here for. Try some internet research yourself and let us know if you get really stuck. Alansplodge (talk) 16:44, 18 April 2021 (UTC)
Well, Alansplodge, that video link on the the Birth of Venus page was just music that also did close ups on the paintings, but told no information at all.
Ive checked the internet, and the sites gave me no answers. The only two reasons I ask questions on wikipedia is first, I’m afraid no one will answer my questions, and second, Wikipedia has lots of people who know different things. That is why is use wikipedia for questions.
Answermeplease11 (talk) 16:53, 18 April 2021 (UTC) Answermeplease11