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This is an old revision of this page, as edited by 75.74.163.240 (talk) at 22:59, 4 October 2011 (→ECONOMIC SECTION: new section). The present address (URL) is a permanent link to this revision, which may differ significantly from the current revision.

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POV edit by User:James Bond 000

I reverted[1] a recent edit by the above user as they did not adhere to a neutral point of view and also introduced grammatical errors. Jezhotwells (talk)

Edit request

{{edit semi-protected}} The history section incorrectly states that the "first known peoples of present-day Spain were the Celts and the Iberians." The first known peoples were the Basques. They are thought to have evolved from the Cro-Magnons who inhabited the area some 40,000 years ago. In contrast, the Iberians and Celts are thought to have inhabited Spain no earlier than about 800BC.

The Basque territory straddled the border of Spain and France, but some of their territory was (and still is) in Spain and the article should reflect that.— Preceding unsigned comment added by 71.206.247.158 (talk)

 Not done - there's no mention of the Basque people during early Spain anywhere in the History of Spain article either, the earliest mention there being that the language was spoken during the 13th century. However, both articles are poorly-sourced in this regard - if you have a reliable online source to verify your claim, please post it here and re-add the {{edit semi-protected}} template, and I (or another editor) will change that entry. (Also, please add your signature on talk pages using "~~~~" in future - thanks a lot.) -- gtdp (T)/(C) 17:52, 13 March 2011 (UTC)[reply]
well, first known people in current Spain were Atapuerca's ones, actually, not basques. — Preceding unsigned comment added by Chocheneguer (talk • contribs) 11:10, 12 September 2011 (UTC)[reply]

I was wondering why there is no mention of the Queen of Spain in this article. — Preceding unsigned comment added by Michaelc101 (talk • contribs) 16:26, 13 June 2011 (UTC)[reply]

Grammatical mistakes

LITERATURE "The term Spanish literature refers to literature written in the Spanish language". This is not correct and shows up a political view which wikipedia should ignore. The term "Spanish literature" refers to the Spanish literature produced in Spain in any of languages of Spain (euzkera, gallician, catalan, castillian) . While "literature in Spanish" refers to all production in Spanish whatsoever the country of origin.

The word "people" is in itself plural. However, we can find a number of occurrences of the word "peoples" which is incorrect and misguiding.

Birupakhya.dash (talk) 09:51, 1 August 2011 (UTC)Biru[reply]

Well, actually you are wrong. Try reading this, this and this. Jezhotwells (talk) 14:17, 1 August 2011 (UTC)[reply]

Thanks for the link. But as it is mentioned in the above references, the word "peoples" is used to signify the similar people of more than one country. In that aspect, the word "peoples" seems misplaced in a few places where the word is meant to denote only the nation of Spain. Birupakhya.dash (talk) 06:45, 19 August 2011 (UTC)Biru[reply]

Update

Please update Politics section, Rubalcaba is not the current interior minister, has been dismissed --Elmoro (talk) 22:15, 22 August 2011 (UTC)[reply]

Edit request from SyntaxStickler, 16 September 2011

please add missing parenthesis at the end of "Spain (Listeni/ˈspeɪn/ spayn; Spanish: España, pronounced [esˈpaɲa] ( listen)"

SyntaxStickler (talk) 00:46, 16 September 2011 (UTC)[reply]

 Done -- Marek.69 talk 01:39, 16 September 2011 (UTC)[reply]

This statement in the economic section is, in my opinion, misleading:

However, the GDP per capita of Spain was still lower than the European Union average at US$29,875 in 2010, making it the second lowest in the Western Europe after Portugal.[86

1. Who defines Western Europe? 2. FOR 2010, PPP, INTERNATIONAL MONETARY FUND: GERMANY 36,081, UK 35,059 DOLLARS, FRANCE 33,910, SPAIN 29,830, ITALY 29,480, GREECE 28,496, PORTURAL 23,262.

SO, SPAINS IN TERMS OF PER CAPITA INCOME AT PPP (THE ONE PREFERRED BY THE UE AND MAJOR ORGNIZATIONS TO REFLECT THE ECONOMIC PURCHASE POWER OF CITIZENS)HAS NOT THE LOWEST OF WESTERN EUROPE AFTER PORTUGAL. STILL, SPAIN´S PER CAPITA IS CLOSER TO FRANCE´S OR THE UK THAN TO PORTUAL.

SOMEBODY SHOULD EITHER CORRECT IT OR PRESENT MORE INFORMATION FOR THE READING NOT TO OBTAIN A WRONG PERSPECTIVE.

CATTO. — Preceding unsigned comment added by 75.74.163.240 (talk) 22:56, 4 October 2011 (UTC)[reply]

ECONOMIC SECTION

This statement in the economic section is, in my opinion, misleading:

However, the GDP per capita of Spain was still lower than the European Union average at US$29,875 in 2010, making it the second lowest in the Western Europe after Portugal.[86

1. Who defines Western Europe? 2. FOR 2010, PPP, INTERNATIONAL MONETARY FUND: GERMANY 36,081, UK 35,059 DOLLARS, FRANCE 33,910, SPAIN 29,830, ITALY 29,480, GREECE 28,496, PORTURAL 23,262.

SO, SPAINS IN TERMS OF PER CAPITA INCOME AT PPP (THE ONE PREFERRED BY THE UE AND MAJOR ORGNIZATIONS TO REFLECT THE ECONOMIC PURCHASE POWER OF CITIZENS)HAS NOT THE LOWEST OF WESTERN EUROPE AFTER PORTUGAL. STILL, SPAIN´S PER CAPITA IS CLOSER TO FRANCE´S OR THE UK THAN TO PORTUAL.

SOMEBODY SHOULD EITHER CORRECT IT OR PRESENT MORE INFORMATION FOR THE READING NOT TO OBTAIN A WRONG PERSPECTIVE.

CATTO. — Preceding unsigned comment added by 75.74.163.240 (talk) 22:56, 4 October 2011 (UTC)[reply]

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